If someone gets divorced then is their x-wife automatically entitled to half of her husband’s networth?
May 5, 2010 - 8:03 pm
Suppose a woman divorces her husband or vice verse. Are either of them entitled to half of their x-husband’s or x-wife’s net worth? What if her husband does not want to give half of his net worth away?
i would think it would depend on how long she was married to him, if their were children, if she were a stay at home mom, i would think she might be entitled to half of their as setts they acquired during the marriage.
May 6th, 2010 at 1:20 am
This is where the lawyers are the winners and both other parties are the losers!
If a court so orders it – it will be done!
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May 6th, 2010 at 1:48 am
No, and it typically no longer happens.
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May 6th, 2010 at 1:54 am
It’s two words, "net worth".
No, it’s not automatic. There are a ton of variables.
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May 6th, 2010 at 2:11 am
Unless you or he signed a pre-nup before getting married.Other wise yes it’s 50/50
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May 6th, 2010 at 2:46 am
depends.
is there a prenump?
how is the divorce decree written?
Is it uncontested?
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http://www.lawyers.com
May 6th, 2010 at 3:35 am
The husband doesn’t get to decide what is given away, the courts do. And, it’s not really 100% his or the spouse wouldn’t be entitled to part of it anyway.
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May 6th, 2010 at 3:43 am
He has to in most cases. That is what lawyers are for to tell you the rules according to what state you live in and if there is a pre nup etc..
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May 6th, 2010 at 4:12 am
Here everything is split 50/50. If people live apart and aren’t divorced and they financially support someone else (girlfriend/boyfriend) the other spouse may get more money to compensate.
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May 6th, 2010 at 4:45 am
depends on state and how good your lawyer is
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May 6th, 2010 at 4:57 am
i would think it would depend on how long she was married to him, if their were children, if she were a stay at home mom, i would think she might be entitled to half of their as setts they acquired during the marriage.
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May 6th, 2010 at 5:34 am
Usually, this happens if there isn’t a pre-nup. But, usually the judge will decide and will look at a ot of different things before making that decision (i.e. kids, how long the marriage lasted, jobs, reason for divorcing, etc..)
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May 6th, 2010 at 6:04 am
Not where I live….. we have 2 different systems, one does entitle each party to get 50% of whatever was earned and purchased during the marriage (I guess only stupid people continue to marry under this system) but the other one keeps each party’s assets separate and no, the other party isn’t entitled to get half of the other party’s assets.
Of course this also varies depending on whether there are kids involved or not, most of the times if there are the court will give the parent who will keep the children (mostly the mother) more $$ and/or properties to "guarantee their welfare" (which also seems stupid to me but that’s the way it is), even though in theory the ex spouse isn’t entitled to get alimony or compensation or whatever.
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May 6th, 2010 at 6:40 am
It depends on his or her holdings, income, what is determined to be marital property and their particular state’s laws re: division of property, AND length of marriage and any pre-nups come into play.
So the Courts make the final determination….and if either refuses to obey the decree…..they are in contempt of court and risk legal trouble.
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May 6th, 2010 at 7:21 am
Unfortunately, if they they didn’t sign a prenup then , yes, she’s entitled by law for half.
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May 6th, 2010 at 7:54 am
The lawyers get paid to settle all of that. I’m not sure if they are entitled to have, but close to it. The only way they don’t have to split things is if a prenuptial was established before they were married.
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